Did God command the prophet Hosea to marry a prostitute? If so, why? - Podcast Episode 222

Why did God tell Hosea to marry a prostitute (Hosea 1:2)? Was Gomer a prostitute before Hosea married her, or did she only become one after they married? What was God's purpose in having Hosea marry an immoral woman? Links: Why did God tell Hosea to marry a prostitute (Hosea 1:2)? - https://www.gotquestions.org/Hosea-ma... Who was Hosea in the Bible? - https://www.gotquestions.org/Hosea-in... Who was Gomer in the Bible? - https://www.gotquestions.org/Gomer-in... Transcript: https://podcast.gotquestions.org/tran... --- https://podcast.gotquestions.org GotQuestions.org Podcast subscription options: Apple - https://podcasts.apple.com/us/podcast... Google - https://podcasts.google.com/feed/aHR0... Spotify - https://open.spotify.com/show/3lVjgxU... Amazon - https://music.amazon.com/podcasts/ab8... IHeartRadio - https://iheart.com/podcast/81148901/ Disclaimer: The views expressed by guests on our podcast do not necessarily reflect the views of Got Questions Ministries. Us having a guest on our podcast should not be interpreted as an endorsement of everything the individual says on the show or has ever said elsewhere. Please use biblically-informed discernment in evaluating what is said on our podcast.